Top 100 Sport Mcq Pdf

Q.1 : Blood supply of medulla A/E :
A : Ant spinal artery
B : Basilar Art.
C : Bulbar Art.
D : PICA
Ans: B
Q.2 : Klumpke s Palsy involves A/E:
A : C6
B : C7
C : C8
D : T1
Ans: A
Q.3 : Branch of Cervical part of ICA is :
A : Opthalmic
B : Ant. cerebral
C : Post. communicating
D : None.
Ans: D
Q.4 : If median nerve is injured at the wrist then loss of function of all of the foll. will take place except:
A : Lumbrical muscles to index finger
B : Lumbrical muscles to middle finger
C : Muscles of thenar eminence
D : Adductor pollicis
Ans: D
Q.5 : Primitive streak is initiated & maintained by:
A : Nodal gene
B : BMP4
C : FGF
D : Brachyury gene
Ans: A
Q.6 : pleural tapping in mid axillary line, muscle not pierced is :
A : Int. intercostal
B : Ext. intercostal
C : Innermost intercostal
D : Transversus thoracis
Ans: D
Q.7 : If circumflex art. gives the posterior interventricular branch, this circulation is described as :
A : Right Dominance
B : Left dominance
C : Codominance
D : Undetermined
Ans: B
Q.8 : In # penis involving rupture of tunica albuginea with intact buch s fascia foll. wud be noted clinically:
A : Hematoma involving only shaft of penis
B : Hematoma involving scrotum & perineal region
C : Penis, scrotum & abdominal wall
D : Penis, scrotum & pages
Ans: A
Q.9 : Middle meningeal artery is transmitted through:
A : Foramen rotundum
B : Foramen ovale
C : Foramen spinosum
D : Foramen lacerum
Ans: C
Q.10 : All are motor nerves except:
A : Accessory
B : Abducent
C : Trochlear
D : Trigeminal
Ans: D
Q.11 : Superior gluteal nerve supplies A/E :
A : Gluteus minimus
B : Gluteus maximus
C : Tensor fasciae latae
D : Gluteus medius
Ans: B
Q.12 : In walking, the hip bone of the suspended leg is raised by which of the following muscles acting on the supported side of the body?
A : Gluteus maximus
B : Gluteus medius
C : Obturator internus
D : Quadratus femoris
Ans: B
The ________ prevents dislocation of the femur backward at the knee joint.
A : PCL
B : ACL
C : MCL
D : LCL
Ans: B
Q.14 : In epidural Lumbar puncture, structures pierced A/E :
A : Post. longitudinal ligament
B : Ligamentous flavum
C : Interspinous Lig.
D : Supraspinous Lig.
Ans: A
Q.15 : The total volume of CSF is :
A : 50 ml
B : 100 ml
C : 150 ml
D : 275 ml
Ans: C
Q.16 : All of the foll structures are in lat. Wall of cavernous sinus Except :
A : Occulomotor
B : Trochlear
C : Trigeminal
D : Opthalmic
Ans: C
Q.17 : Deja vu Phenomoenon seen in lesion of :
A : Temporal Lobe
B : Frontal Lobe
C : Parietal Lobe
D : Angular gyrus.
Ans: A
Q.18 : In polio contracture of the iliotibial tract leads to A/E :
A : Hip flexion & abduction
B : Varus deformity at knee
C : Knee flexion
D : Lat. rotation of tibia
Ans: B
Q.19 : About splenic art. all are true Except :
A : Celiac art. branch
B : End artery
C : Runs in spleno renal ligament
D : Lies along superior border of pancreas
Ans: B
Q.20 : Mitral cells are present in :
A : Kidney
B : Mitral Valve
C : olfactory tract
D : Optic nv.
Ans: C
Q.21 : Nv. supply of scalp A/E :
A : Auriculotemporal N.
B : Zygomatic
C : Occipital
D : Infratrochlear
Ans: D
Q.22 : Os trigonum is which type of epiphysis:
A : Aberrant
B : Atavistic
C : Pressure
D : Traction
Ans: B
Q.23 : Fibrous Joint A/E:
A : Skull Sutures
B : Tooth Socket
C : Inf. tibiofibular
D : Symphisis pubis
Ans: D
Q.24 : Neural crest derivatives are A/E :
A : Melanocytes
B : Schwann cells
C : Thyroid follicular cells
D : Parafollicular C cells
Ans: C
Q.25 : SUBSTANCES THAT DO NOT CROSS THE PLACENTAL MEMBRANE ARE A/E :
A : IgG
B : IgA
C : IgM
D : IgE
Ans: A
Q.26 : Bulbus cordis forms :
A : Trabeculated part of right ventricle
B : Smooth part of right ventricle
C : Smooth part of right atrium
D : Trabeculated part of right atrium
Ans: B
Q.27 : Paramesonephric ducts forms :
A : Appendix vesiculosa
B : Paradidymis
C : Appendix epididymis
D : Appendix testes
Ans: D
Q.28 : Treacher Collins syndrome is characterized by underdevelopment of :
A : zygomatic bones
B : Maxillary bones
C : sphenoid bones
D : None.
Ans: A
Q.29 : Inversion of foot is at:
A : Talocalcaneonavicular Jt.
B : Calcaneocuboid Jt.
C : Talocalcaneal Jt.
D : Inf. Talofibular Jt.
Ans: C
Q.30 : Gitter cells are :
A : Microglia
B : Modified macrophages
C : Astrocytes
D : Neutrophils
Ans: A
Q.31 : Clara Cells are found in :
A : Trachea
B : Bronchioles
C : Alveoli
D : Oesophagus
Ans: B
Q.32 : Shotgun perineum is :
A : acquired condition in males
B : acquired condition in females
C : congenital condition in female
D : congenital condition in males
Ans: C
Q.33 : Double barr body is seen in :
A : Turners
B : Klinefelters
C : XXX
D : Downs
Ans: C
Q.34 : Which of the following disappear in umbilical cord:
A : Left art.
B : Left vein
C : Right art.
D : Rt. vein
Ans: D
Q.35 : Implantation occurs at the stage of :
A : Zygote
B : Morula
C : Blastocyst
D : Primary villi
Ans: C
Q.36 : A midline cleft lip is due to failure of fusion of:
A : Maxillary processes
B : Medial nasal processes
C : Medial & lateral nasal process
D : Medial nasal & maxillary process
Ans: B
Q.37 : which of the following is a feature of Y chromosome ?
A : Acrocentric
B : Telocentric
C : Submetacentric
D : Metacentric
Ans: A
Q.38 : All of the foll. are pneumatic bones Except :
A : Maxilla
B : Parietal
C : Ethmoid
D : Mastoid
Ans: B
Q.39 : All of the following are composite muscle Except:
A : Pectineus
B : Rectus femoris
C : Adductor magnus
D : Biceps femoris
Ans: B
Q.40 : The skin overlying the region where a venous cut down is made to access the great saphenous vein is supplied by :
A : Femoral N.
B : Sural N.
C : Tibial N.
D : Superficial Peroneal N.
Ans: A
Q.41 : Porto systemic shunt is not seen in :
A : Liver
B : Spleen
C : Anorectum
D : Gastro esophageal
Ans: B
Q.42 : aortic opening transmits A/E :
A : aorta
B : thoracic duct
C : vagus nerves
D : azygos vein
Ans: C
43: A 52-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of right-sided pleurisy with pneumonia. It was decided to remove a sample of pleural fluid from her pleural cavity. The resident inserted the needle close to the lower border of the eighth rib in the anterior axillary line. The next morning he was surprised to hear that the patient had complained of altered skin sensation extending from the point where the needle was inserted downward and forward to the midline of the abdominal wall above the
A : The needle was inserted too low down in the intercostal space
B : The needle was inserted too close to the lower border of the eighth rib and damaged the eighth intercostal nerve
C : The needle had impaled the eighth rib
D : The needle had penetrated too deeply and pierced the lung
Ans: B
Q.44 : A 43-year-old man was involved in a violent quarrel with his wife over another woman. In a fit of rage, the wife picked up a carving knife and lunged forward at her husband, striking his anterior neck over the left clavicle. The husband collapsed on the kitchen floor, bleeding profusely from the wound. The distraught wife called an ambulance. On examination in the emergency department of the hospital, the following conditions were found except which?
A : Auscultation revealed diminished breath sounds over the left hemithorax
B : The trachea was deflected to the left
C : The left upper limb was lying stationary on the table, and active movement of the small muscles of the left hand was absent
D : The patient was insensitive to pin prick along the lateral side of the left arm, forearm, and hand
Ans: D
Q.45 : Transpyloric Plane lies at the level of:
A : T12
B : L1
C : L2
D : L3
Ans: B
Q.46 : The following statements concerning the spermatic cord are correct except:
A : It extends from the deep inguinal ring to the scrotum
B : It contains the testicular artery
C : It is covered by five layers of spermatic fascia
D : It contains the pampiniform plexus
Ans: C
Q.47 : Immediately after delivery, it was noted that a 7.5-lb male neonate had a large swelling on the anterior abdominal wall. The swelling consisted of a large sac, the walls of which were translucent and soft. The umbilical cord was attached to the apex of the sac, and the umbilical arteries and vein ran within its walls. The following statements concerning this case are probably correct except :
A : On closer examination it was possible to see within the sac coils of small intestine and the lower margin of the liver
B : As the baby cried and started to swallow air, the sac became larger
C : Failure of the formation of adequate head and tail folds of the embryonic disc causes a defect in the anterior abdominal wall in
D : The defect in the anterior abdominal wall is filled with thin amnion, which forms the wall of the sac
Ans: C
Q.48 : The following statements concerning the pancreas are correct except:
A : The pancreas receives part of the arterial supply from the splenic artery
B : The main pancreatic duct opens into the third part of the duodenum
C : The uncinate process of the pancreas projects from the head of the pancreas
D : The transverse mesocolon is attached to the anterior border of the pancreas
Ans: B
Q.49 : The following veins form important portal systemic anastomoses except:
A : Esophageal branches of the left gastric vein and tributaries of the azygos veins
B : Superior rectal vein and inferior vena cava
C : Paraumbilical veins and superficial veins of the anterior abdominal wall
D : Veins from the bare areas of the liver with the phrenic veins
Ans: B
Q.50 : The urogenital diaphragm is formed by the following structures except :
A : Deep transverse perineal muscle
B : Perineal membrane
C : Sphincter urethrae
D : Colles fascia
Ans: D
Q.51 : The following structures pass posterior to the flexor retinaculum except :
A : Flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
B : Median nerve
C : Ulnar nerve
D : Flexor pollicis longus tendon
Ans: C
Q.52 : The tendons of the following muscles form the rotator cuff except :
A : Teres major
B : Supraspinatus
C : Subscapularis
D : Infraspinatus
Ans: A
Q.53 : The carpal tunnel contains the following important structures except :
A : Flexor pollicis longus tendon
B : Median nerve
C : Flexor carpi radialis tendon
D : Flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
Ans: C
Q.54 : Trochanteric anastomoses comprises of A/E:
A : medial femoral circumflex artery
B : first perforating artery
C : superior gluteal artery
D : inferior gluteal artery
Ans: B
Q.55 : Hyperextension of the hip joint is prevented by the:
A : obturator internus tendon
B : ischiofemoral ligament
C : iliotibial tract
D : tensor fascia latae muscle
Ans: B
Q.56 : The following structures pass through the greater sciatic foramen except :
A : superior gluteal artery
B : sciatic nerve
C : obturator internus tendon
D : pudendal nerve
Ans: C
Q.57 : The foot is inverted by the following muscles except :
A : tibialis anterior
B : extensor hallucis longus
C : peroneus tertius
D : tibialis posterior
Ans: C
Q.58 : All of The extrinsic muscles of eye have origin from Posterior wall of orbital cavity except :
A : Superior rectus
B : Superior oblique
C : Inferior rectus
D : Inferior oblique
Ans: D
Q.59 : Which is true about synovial jt?
A : Stability is inversely proportional to mobility
B : Hyaline cartilage covers articular surface of all synovial jts.
C : MCP is a hinge jt.
D : Cartilage usually divides the jt. into 2 cavities.
Ans: A
Q.60 : the wt. of upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
A : coracoclavicular ligament
B : Coracoacromial
C : Costoclavicular
D : Coracohumeral
Ans: A
Q.61 : downward displacement of enlarged spleen is prevented by:
A : lienorenal ligament
B : phrenicocolic lig.
C : sigmoid colon
D : upper pole of rt. kidney
Ans: B
Q.62 : the foll group of Lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except:
A : External iliac
B : Internal iliac
C : superficial inguinal
D : deep inguinal
Ans: D
Q.63 : Lymphatics are found in :
A : Brain
B : Choroid
C : Internal
D : Dermis of skin
Ans: D
Q.64 : greater vein of Galen is formed by:
A : Superior sagittal sinus wid straight sinus
B : Inf. sagittal wid straight sinus
C : Internal cerebral veins
D : basilar veins
Ans: C
Q.65 : which is a direct branch of celiac trunk:
A : Rt. gastric
B : Lt. gastric
C : Gastroduodenal
D : Rt. gastro epiploic
Ans: B
Q.66 : Blood supply of littles area are A/E:
A : Greater palatine artery
B : Septal br of sup. labial
C : Ant. ethmoidal
D : Nasal br. of sphenopalatine.
Ans: D
Q.67 : Blood supply of breast are A/E:
A : Internal mammary art.
B : Intercostal vessels
C : Thoraco dorsal br. of subscapular art.
D : Thoraco acromial art.
Ans: C
Q.68 : All the structures are seen in transverse section of T4 vertebral level except:
A : Arch of aorta
B : thymus
C : azygous vein
D : thoracic duct
Ans: C
Q.69 : A 59 yr. old man complains of recurrent attacks of pain in the region of left shoulder radiating to sternum & pit of stomach. The attacks of pain came at lengthy intervals until the last 2 days when it became continuous. the physician diagnosed it as angina pectoris. in this case the pain pathway from the heart is carried by:
A : Sup. cervical cardiac n.
B : Middle & inf. cervical cardiac n.
C : Thoracic splanchnic n.
D : Vagus n.
Ans: C
Q.70 : left testicular vein drain into:
A : IMV
B : IVC
C : Lt. renal
D : Common iliac
Ans: C
Q.71 : shortest part of male urethra is :
A : penile
B : Prostatic
C : membranous
D : bulbar
Ans: C
Q.72 : the structure in the free border of lesser omentum from ant. to post. are:
A : CBD, Hepatic art, portal V.
B : PV, HA, CBD
C : HA, PV, CBD
D : PV, CBD, HA
Ans: A
Q.73 : all of the following structures are compressed during flexion & abduction of shoulder Joint. Except :
A : Suprascpular N.
B : Long head of biceps tendon
C : supraspinatus tendon
D : subacromial bursa
Ans: A
Q.74 : when a heavy object in hand is lowered, the extension at elbow is brought about by:
A : Active shortening of extensors
B : Passive shortening of extensors
C : Active lenghtining of flexors
D : Active shortening of flexors
Ans: C
Q.75 : Wrist drop is caused by A/E:
A : Lead poisoning
B : Radial n. palsy
C : Ulnar n. palsy
D : both a & b.
Ans: C
Q.76 : Ossification centre of medial epicondyle appears in:
A : 5th yr.
B : 7th yr.
C : 9th yr.
D : 11th yr.
Ans: A
Q.77 : Anterior cruciate ligament prevents :
A : Ant. dislocation of tibia
B : Post dislocation of tibia
C : Ant. dislocation of femur
D : Post. dislocation of femur.
Ans: A
Q.78 : artery found in adductor canal is:
A : Profunda femoris
B : Femoral
C : Obturator
D : popliteal
Ans: B
Q.79 : Nerve involved in tarsal tunnel syndrome is :
A : Lateral plantar
B : medial plantar
C : post tibial
D : ant tibial
Ans: C
Q.80 : All are supplied by Facial N. Except:
A : Lacrimal gland
B : submandibular gland
C : nasal glands
D : parotid gland.
Ans: D
Q.81 : Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of:
A : Long thoracic
B : Axillary
C : Radial
D : Median
Ans: A
Q.82 : 43 yr old woman came with large abscess in the middle of rt. post. triangle of the neck. the physician incised & drained the abscess. 5 days later pt. noticed that she cud not extend her rt. hand above her head to brush her hair. which of the foll are signs & symptoms of additional harm?
A : Damage to scalaneus medius
B : Injry to suprascapular N
C : Cut to spinal part of accessory
D : spread of infection to shoulder jt.
Ans: C
Q.83 : Which of the following is the earliest manifestation
A : Loss of diurnal variation
B : Increased ACTH
C : Increased plasma cortisol
D : Increased urinary metabolites of cortisol
Ans: A
Q.84 : The lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by
A : Lacunar ligament
B : Femoral ligament
C : Femoral vein
D : Femoral nerve
Ans: C
Q.85 : Which is not a content of femoral sheath
A : Femoral nerve
B : Femoral artery
C : Femoral vein
D : Deep inguinal node
Ans: C
Q.86 : Which muscle extends the knee with hip extended
A : Biceps femoris
B : Vastus medialis
C : Rectus femoris
D : Vastus lateralis
Ans: C
Q.87 : The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of
A : Femoral artery
B : External iliac artery
C : Internal iliac artery
D : Aorta
Ans: A
Q.88 : All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis except
A : Mastoid process
B : Tubercles of humerus
C : Tronchanters of femur
D : Condyles tibia
Ans: D
Q.89 : Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to the involvement of the following nerve
A : Subcostal
B : Iliohypogastric
C : Ilioinguinal
D : Genitofemoral
Ans: D
Q.90 : All of the following are pneumatic bones except
A : Maxilla
B : Parietal
C : Ethmoid
D : Mastoid
Ans: B
Q.91 : The pronator quadratus has the same innervation of the following muscle
A : Flexor digitorum superficialis
B : Palmaris longus
C : Flexor pollicis longus
D : Flexor digitorum profundus of middle finger
Ans: C
Q.92 : In spinal cord myelin sheath is formed by
A : Schwann cells
B : Oligodenrocytes
C : Astrocytes
D : Microglia
Ans: B
Q.93 : The gastroduodenal artery is derived from
A : Celiac artery
B : Hepatic artery
C : Splenic artery
D : Cystic artery
Ans: B
Q.94 : Structure that pass from thorax to abdomen behind the diaphragm are all except
A : Azygos vein
B : Aorta
C : Thoracic duct
D : Greater palatine nerve
Ans: A
Q.95 : Lumbar hemiivertebra results due to the abnormal development of
A : Dorsal sclerotome
B : Intermediate cell mass
C : Notocord
D : Ventral sclerotome
Ans: D
Q.96 : Which of the following nerves is present in the posterior fossa
A : 3rd of 12th
B : 4th to 12th
C : 5th to 12th
D : 6th to 12th
Ans: A
Q.97 : In left subclavian artery, the branches of the first part of the subclavian artery are all except
A : Costocervical trunk
B : Internal thoracic artery
C : Thyrocervical trunk
D : Vertebral artery
Ans: A
Q.[snip] : Cirumvallate paplillae are innervated by
A : 6th nerve
B : 7th nerve
C : 8th nerve
D : 9th nerve
Ans: D
Q.99 : Intestinal obstruction caused by Ca colon most likely involves
A : Caecum
B : Ascending colon
C : Transverse colon
D : Sigmoid colon
Ans: D
Q.100 : In standing position, venous return to heart from the lower limbs is affected by all of the following except
A : Competent valves
B : Deep fascia
C : Areterial pressure
D : Contraction of the calf muscles
Ans: C
  1. Top 100 Sport Mcq Pdf Download
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  4. Top 100 Sport Mcq Pdf
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  • Answer: The trade winds. 63) The latitude of Arctic Circle: Answer: 66.5 degrees north. 64) The sun rises in the east and sets in the west due to: Answer: Rotation of the earth. 65) Blocks of earth’s crust are raised or lowered due to faulting, write the geographical name for raised blocks: Answer: Horsts.
  • General Knowledge Questions: Sports Questions. At which sport in the 1960s did Peggy Fleming become a household name? Who revolutionised high jumping when he used his flop technique to win an Olympic gold medal in Mexico in 1968?
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Olympics Multiple Choice Questions quiz 1. When ancient Olympic games first held? Who is the founder of anc. MCQs IN PSYCHOLOGY: Objectives for UPSC, UGC-NET/JRF and Other Competitive Examinations Avinash Kumar, Ph. D., University of Delhi, And Gopal C. D., University of Delhi MUMBAI NEW DELHI NAGPUR BENGALURU HYDERABAD CHENNAI PUNE LUCKNOW AHMEDABAD ERNAKULAM BHUBANESWAR INDORE KOLKATA GUWAHATI.

1. McDonals soccer test involves

(a) Volleying the soccer ball against a backboard

(b) Volleying the soccer ball and also kicking a soccer Jot a distance

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(c) Volleying the soccer ball, kicking soccer ball for a distance & dribble for I speed

(d) Kicking a soccer ball for a distance dribble for speed.

2. Which of the following is a motor educability test ?

(a) J. C. R. test (b) I. O. W. A. test

(c) Fleisman test (d) All the above.

3. AAHPERD Youths fitness test is for measuring

(a) General motor ability

(b) Motor fitness

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(c) Motor educability

(d) All the above.

4. The degree of uniformity with which various testers score the same test is found fat through

(a) Validity (b) reliability

(c) Objectivity (d) all the above.

5. a piece of equipment used to measure units of work done by person is called

(a) Ammeter (b) ergo meter

(c) Galvanometer (d) manometer.

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6. Queens college step test is used to measure

Top 100 Sport Mcq Pdf Download

(a) Cardiovascular (b) endurance (c) flexibility (d) heart rate.

7. What is the full form of AAHPERD?

(a) American and Australian Health, Physical Education, Recreation and Dance.

(b) American Association for Health, Physical Education, Recreation and Dance

(c) American Alliance for Health, Physical Education, Recreation and Dance

(d) None of the above.

8. Name the test to determine the cardio-vascc&ax efficiency

(a) Harvard test

(b) Coopers test

(c) Margaria step test

(d) Bench test.

9. Reliability denoted

(a) Consistency of performance

(b) Variability among groups

(c) Inconsistency among subject

(d) None of the above.

10. In 2 x 2 x 2 factorial design, the number of treatment groups will be

(a) 3

(b) 6

(c) 8

(d) None of the above.

11. A treadmill is used for measuring

(a) Speed

(b) Power

(c) Work done in running

(d) Force.

12. In which case we should not use test?

(a) When the number is small

(b) When variance is large

(c) When distribution is normal

(d) None of the above.

13. The evaluation which is undertaken during the course of training is called

(a) Summative evaluation

(b) Creative evaluation

(c) Formative evaluation

(d) Normative evaluation.

14. The level of aspiration is ideal if the discrepancy between the set goal and actual performance comes

(a) 50% (b) 40%

(c) 100% (d) 10%.

15. The degree of consistency with which a measuring device may be applied is ascertained through

(a) Validity

(b) Reliability

(c) Both the above

(d) None of the above.

16. Which country won the ‘First Asian Handball Championship’ in the women’s section ?

(a) Bhutan (b) Pakistan

(c) India (d) Bangladesh.

17. Who amongst the following is a winner of Arjuna Award in the game of handball?

(a) Roshan Lai (b) Neeraj Hooda (c) J. S. Soodh (d) Milka Singh.

18. Who is the current union sports minister of India?

(a) Uma Bharti

(b) S. S. Dhindsa

(c) Sivanthi Adityan

(d) Ananth Kumar.

19. Which of the following is the Indoor Stadium for swimming in Delhi?

(a) National Stadium

Top 100 Sport Mcq Pdf

(b) Indira Gandhi Stadium

Top 100 sport mcq pdf

(c) Talkatora Stadium (a) Ambedkar Stadium.

20. For excellence in which sport is the ‘Eklavya’ award given?

(a) Malkhamb (b) Kabaddi (c) Wrestling (d) Kho-kho.

21. ‘Rani Laxmi Award’ is given for outstanding performance in the sport of

(a) Judo (b) Kabaddi

(c) Kho-kho (d) Tae-kwando.

22. In which of the following sport is the largest trophy presented in the world?

(a) Car racing (b) Chess (c) Polo (d) Equestrian.

23. Who was the captain of Indian team the ‘1st Asian Handball’ Championship?

Top

(a) J. S. Sudan

(b) Ajnesh Chauhan

(c) Jaswant Singh

(d) I. D. Sharma.

24. Which the following countries won the far Asian Handball Championship among men?

(a) China (b) India

(c) Japan (d) Pakistan.

25. Which of the following two countries reached the finals (men) in the first ‘Asian Handball Championship’?

(a) India and Bangladesh

(b) India and Pakistan

(c) India and Bhutan

(d) Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

26. Where were the first SAF games held? (a) Kathmandu (b) Malaysia

(c) Delhi (d) Pakistan.

27. Which city hosted the first National Games?

(a) Calcutta (b) New Delhi 1

(c) Channai (d) Karnataka.

28. How many times has India won Hockey Gold Medal in Olympics?

(a) 7 times (b) 8 times

(c) 6 times (d) 4 times.

29. ‘Helms’ award was confirmed on

(a) K D. Singh ‘Babu’

(b) Balbir Singh

(c) Roop Singh

(d) L. Claudius.

30. The trophy awarded to men’s team in National Hockey Champion is named as

(a) Nehru Trophy

(b) Rangaswami Cup

(c) Ramaswami Cup

(d) Dhyan Chand Trophy.

31. The term spot-stroke is used in

(a) Golf (b) hockey

(c) Billiards (d) swimming.

32. Interpretation of a student’s score done by comparing it with scores of other students is done by

(a) Criterion referenced test

(b) norm-referenced test

(c) Objective test

(d) Essay test.

33. Test used to measure cardio-respiratory endurance is

(a) Tread mill test (b) dynamometer (c) tens meter (d) cyber.

34. Which of the following tests is not used to measure muscular endurance?

(a) Sit up (b) Flexed arm hang

(c) Squat thrust (d) Distance walk.

35. Assessments of flexibility is done with the help of

(a) Dynamometer (b) tens meter (c) goniometry (d) cyber.

36. Which of the following field test is not used to measure muscular strength?

(a) 1 Rm bench press

(b) 1 Rm leg press

(c) 1 Rm squat

(d) Flexed arm hang.

37. Range of movement present at body joints refers to

(a) Muscular endurance

(b) Muscular strength

(c) Flexibility

(d) Agility.

38. Which of the following test is not a test for motor ability?

(a) Larsentest

(b) Metheny-Johnson test

(c) Cozen’s athletic ability test

(d) JCR test.

39. Tests like SAT are used to measure (a) aptitude (b) intelligence (c) achievement (d) performance.

40. Which of the following tests does not measure performance?

(a) IQ tests

(b) Otis-Lennon

(c) Differential Aptitude test

(d) Wechsler.

41. Measure of muscular talent is a test for (a) aptitude (b) intelligence (c) achievement (d) diagnostic.

42. Which the following is a test for flexibility and balance?

(a) Ruler drop test

(b) T’ drill test

(c) RAST

(d) Sit and reach test.

43. Which of the following tests is used to measure reaction time?

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(a) Ruler drop test

(b) SCAT

(c) Jumps Decathlon

(d) 5 Km predictor test.

44. Which of the following tests is not a skill test for vollyball?

(a) Helmen tests

(b) Modified Brady

(c) Mor. Christian Test Battery

(d) Allen Diagnostic Instrument.

45. Which of the following is a badminton skill test?

(a) French Short Serve test

(b) Sherman Untimed Consecutive Rally test

(c) Hammer ‘Mini-Match’

(d) Wisconsin Wall test.

46. Which measurements of body composition are based on the assumption that density and specific gravity of lean tissue is greater than that of fat tissue?

(a) Hydrostatic weighing

(b) Body mass index

(c) Electro biography

(d) Anthropometry.

47. Which test for body composition is used to quantify and individual’s obesity level?

(a) Height/Weight tables

(b) Body mass index

(c) Skin fold measurement

(d) Hydrostatic weighing.

48. Which of the following measures of body composition used the ‘Capilar device’ to measure the thickness of substantiates fat stores?

(a) Body mass index

(b) Hydrostatic weighing

(c) Skin-fold measurements

(d) Electro logography.

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49. Which of the following is a test to measure balance?

(a) Quick feet test

(b) ‘T’ drill test

(c) Stork stand test

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(d) Lateral change of direction test.

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50. Which of the following is not a test for agility?

(a) Illinois agility run test

(b) «T drill test

(c) Stork stand test

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(d) Quick feet test.

Answers

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8 (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29 (a) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36 (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43 (a) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)

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